What's your bid and why?
Partner pre-empts What do you do?
#1
Posted 2010-November-25, 05:37
What's your bid and why?
wyman, on 2012-May-04, 09:48, said:
rbforster, on 2012-May-20, 21:04, said:
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#2
Posted 2010-November-25, 05:49
#3
Posted 2010-November-25, 06:23
#4
Posted 2010-November-25, 06:30
If I bid 3NT, will partner pull with the 7-4?.
All actions are close IMO, sadly simulations won't work since wrong lead will often be the key to either game.
Having to pick one, I pick 3NT.
#6
Posted 2010-November-25, 08:49
Fluffy, on 2010-November-25, 06:30, said:
I don't think "pure" is the right word for such a preempt.
#7
Posted 2010-November-25, 08:50
#8
Posted 2010-November-25, 08:53
#9
Posted 2010-November-25, 09:25
It's not our style to remove 3N very often, so if I bid 3N, partner won't move without something wholly exceptional.
#10
Posted 2010-November-25, 09:37
4♠ is basicly banking that partner has single diamonds and then some luck in the soft suits.
Best-case scenario:
♠AQ109xxx
♥Qxx
♦x
♣ xx
and we still need the ♣A onside, or a major FCK-up.
Theres is also the chance that opponents might misjudge and compete. (Well, at least if the skip-rules are enforced.)
Do not underestimate the power of the dark side. Or the ninth trumph.
Best Regards Ole Berg
_____________________________________
We should always assume 2/1 unless otherwise stated, because:
- If the original poster didn't bother to state his system, that means that he thinks it's obvious what he's playing. The only people who think this are 2/1 players.
Gnasher
#11
Posted 2010-November-25, 09:50
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We're in the universe, and the universe is in us.
#12
Posted 2010-November-25, 22:38
3NT is out of question for me, 3NT contracts with likely 3 aces out suffer and those who bid it never fail to surprise me more by bidding it again and again without aces. (i am talking about the players i kibitz and/or play as pd in bbo, no offense to anyone here)
3 NT contracts when played with less than required strength, MUST have ACES imo.
EDIT: @ Gnasher; it may be worse than a finesse, but vulnerable game contract requires arround %38-39 i guess (i am not sure about the exact #) But i know it is less than % 50.
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#13
Posted 2010-November-25, 23:11
#14
Posted 2010-November-26, 04:49
MrAce, on 2010-November-25, 22:38, said:
The threshold is 6/(6+10) = 37.5%.
My point was that even when partner has an unusually good hand, game is only just good enough. Opposite most normal hands game will be poor or hopeless. If there is a 20% chance that game is 50%, and an 80% chance that it's 0%, our expectation of making game is 10%.
#15
Posted 2010-November-26, 06:02
George Carlin
#16
Posted 2010-November-26, 10:43
gnasher, on 2010-November-26, 04:49, said:
My point was that even when partner has an unusually good hand, game is only just good enough. Opposite most normal hands game will be poor or hopeless. If there is a 20% chance that game is 50%, and an 80% chance that it's 0%, our expectation of making game is 10%.
The real life threshold is an interesting and complex number, not really susceptible to calculation. One reason why it should be higher than 37.5 is that that number assumes that when the game fails, it does so by only one undoubled undertrick. Decent contracts sometimes get doubled when breaks are foul and the opps can sniff it out.....and the occasional 500 has a significant impact on the numbers....of course, making doubled contracts has the opposite effect, but they are far less likely to double a making contract than one that is doomed.
OTOH, the reality is that the best defenders in the world don't defend double-dummy, and so low-percentage, and 'unmmakeable' contracts, against optimum defence, will come home once in a while. The weaker one's opps, the more chance there is of this happening, but the less likely you are to need to bid really thin games in order to win.
On the actual hand I Pass. I'd never consider 3N, where my expectation would be about 7.5 tricks on average. I'll pay to partner holding A109xxxx and a side A. 4♠ would be the shot I'd take if desperate.
#17
Posted 2010-November-26, 10:50
@Gnasher + MrACe - the 3/8 requirement for a vul game assumes that we do not go for -1 and we do not get x'd.
Assuming the other table has the same 3♠ opening - if -2 is as likely as -1 (so we are taking 8.5 tricks), and we are doubled 1/2 the time the outcomes are:
Undoubled
10 tricks: win 10 (+450)
9 tricks: lose 6 (-240)
8 tricks: lose 3 (-100)
10/14.5 = 68.9%. Isn't it curious that our threshold is 31% undoubled when we can expect to take less tricks?
Doubled
10 tricks: win 12 (+620)
9 tricks: lose 8 (-340)
8 tricks: lose 9 (-400)
12/20.5 = 58.5%. Our requirement is 41.5%
Blending these gives us 36.25% which isn't far from the normal requirement, however when they are doubling its usually right since the cards will be poorly placed.
4♠ also has some other wins when both 4♠ and 5m are going down.
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#18
Posted 2010-November-26, 13:51

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