[kiwinacol]

Hello,

Acol players bid this hand easily: 1D 1S, 1NT 3NT. 1NT = 15-16

North D, all V

S J5 H AQ85 D KQT74 C A7

South

S KJ95
H K
D 9832
C KT76

I'm new to 2/1 and or sequence failed: 1D 1S, 2D pass.

Is North suitable for 1NT opening? How do we get to 3NT?

thanks.

[steve2005]

Either you open 1N or you rebid 2♥ there is merit to both.

[mike777]

sure open 1nt

if not at least rebid

3d by south

[MrAce]

kiwinacol, on 2015-April-16, 20:39, said:

Hello,

Acol players bid this hand easily: 1D 1S, 1NT 3NT. 1NT = 15-16

North D, all V

S J5 H AQ85 D KQT74 C A7

South

S KJ95
H K
D 9832
C KT76

I'm new to 2/1 and or sequence failed: 1D 1S, 2D pass.

Is North suitable for 1NT opening? How do we get to 3NT?

thanks.

For 2/1.

Any hand ACOL decides to show as 15-16 balanced, so can 2/1. So yes, a 2/1 player can open this 1 NT. But this does not mean those who don't start 1 NT can not find it. If opener decides 1♦, over 1♠ they divide to 2 ♦ ers and 2♥ reversers. Over reverse finding game is easy, they may even investigate slam and stop short of it due to lack of keycards. Over 2♦, responder has an easy 3 ♦ bid which is more than enough to solve the problem.

Divided we bid, united we end up

[gordontd]

kiwinacol, on 2015-April-16, 20:39, said:

Hello,

Acol players bid this hand easily: 1D 1S, 1NT 3NT. 1NT = 15-16

North D, all V

S J5 H AQ85 D KQT74 C A7

South

S KJ95
H K
D 9832
C KT76

I'm new to 2/1 and or sequence failed: 1D 1S, 2D pass.

Is North suitable for 1NT opening? How do we get to 3NT?

thanks.

I don't understand what this second hand, also marked as South, containing three cards the same as in the first hand, is supposed to be.

[gordontd]

mike777, on 2015-April-16, 21:32, said:

sure open 1nt

if not at least rebid

3d by south

A 3D rebid doesn't look anything like this.

[mike777]

gordontd, on 2015-April-16, 23:43, said:

A 3D rebid doesn't look anything like this.

yes it does.

perhaps what confuses you is the opening bid strength.


if you do not like that then open 1nt

[kiwinacol]

thanks to all posters and sorry for errors .. my scribble at the table and poor checking.

NORTH

S J5 H AQ85 D KQT74 C A7

SOUTH

S KT93
H K
D 9832
C KJ96

[gordontd]

mike777, on 2015-April-17, 00:07, said:

yes it does.

perhaps what confuses you is the opening bid strength.


if you do not like that then open 1nt

A 3D rebid shows a good six-card suit. If you think this hand is strong enough to rebid 3D then it is also strong enough to reverse into 2H, which would be a more accurate description of your shape.

[mike777]

gordontd, on 2015-April-17, 00:10, said:

A 3D rebid shows a good six-card suit. If you think this hand is strong enough to rebid 3D then it is also strong enough to reverse into 2H, which would be a more accurate description of your shape.

responder bids 3d not opener


I said 3d by south

[gordontd]

mike777, on 2015-April-17, 01:02, said:

responder bids 3d not opener

Ah, of course, at the time I first responded I thought both hands had been marked as South. Now I see we were talking at cross purposes. Sorry.

[P_Marlowe]

Hi,

opening 1D vs. 1NT, or making a reverse is judgment.

But South can raise 2D to 3D, he has a known 9 card fit,
the singleton King is in partners known long suit, passing
2D is not a good idea.

Finally opening 1NT with some 5422 shapes, 5 card minor,
4 card major is quite common, especially if you have only
15/16HCP, this strengthens your reverse bids, they become
stronger. => Due to this you can agree, that a reverse bid
promises another bid by opener ... I am not a fan of this,
but it is a reasonable agreement.

The only problem may arise, if you have a highly specialized
agreement set over a 1NT opening bid. Some system assume
bal. shape, no 5 card major etc.

With kind regards
Marlowe




With kind regards
Marlowe

[Cyberyeti]

MrAce, on 2015-April-16, 21:53, said:

Any hand ACOL decides to show as 15-16 balanced, so can 2/1.

This is not true, Acol can much more easily decide to rebid 1N with a singleton opposite partner's known suit in a 1x-1y-1N auction when you wouldn't want to open 1N without knowing that partner held the suit, and wasn't going to play in it with Jxxxx.

This doesn't apply for this particular hand, and 1N is not unreasonable.

[MrAce]

gordontd, on 2015-April-17, 01:05, said:

Ah, of course, at the time I first responded I thought both hands had been marked as South. Now I see we were talking at cross purposes. Sorry.

Yea mate, you made me wonder too,,,,I was like "wtf does it look like if not 3♦"

[MrAce]

Cyberyeti, on 2015-April-17, 01:33, said:

This is not true, Acol can much more easily decide to rebid 1N with a singleton opposite partner's known suit in a 1x-1y-1N auction when you wouldn't want to open 1N without knowing that partner held the suit, and wasn't going to play in it with Jxxxx.

This doesn't apply for this particular hand, and 1N is not unreasonable.

Actually, i would open 1 NT more often with stiff if I knew pd does NOT have 5 card in this suit

[Cyberyeti]

MrAce, on 2015-April-17, 02:27, said:

Actually, i would open 1 NT more often with stiff if I knew pd does NOT have 5 card in this suit

This was sort of my point, you really want him to hold exactly 4.

If he holds 5, he'll play in the suit, if he holds 3, the opps are probably running a load of tricks.