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They open one club 98xx AQTx QJ KTx

Poll: How do you intervene? (20 member(s) have cast votes)

I'd

  1. Pass, expecting to act later (6 votes [30.00%])

    Percentage of vote: 30.00%

  2. Double, passing to partner's diamonds if that's the case (12 votes [60.00%])

    Percentage of vote: 60.00%

  3. Bid one Heart, 4 nice cards and good hand (1 votes [5.00%])

    Percentage of vote: 5.00%

  4. Do something else (1 votes [5.00%])

    Percentage of vote: 5.00%

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#1 User is offline   Hanoi5 

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Posted 2013-July-17, 22:03

All red, Mp's, third hand opens 1 and you hold:

987x
AQTx
QJ
KTx

(Pa)-Pa-(1)-???

What do you do?

 wyman, on 2012-May-04, 09:48, said:

Also, he rates to not have a heart void when he leads the 3.


 rbforster, on 2012-May-20, 21:04, said:

Besides playing for fun, most people also like to play bridge to win


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#2 User is offline   mike777 

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Posted 2013-July-17, 22:09

I assume my options are pass or X

I x but have no issue with pass other than I wont act later.
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#3 User is offline   Free 

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Posted 2013-July-18, 01:02

I used to pass with these, but I've learned to Double. QJ is great support, even if we'd end up in a 4-2 fit.
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#4 User is offline   PhilKing 

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Posted 2013-July-18, 01:11

Play the double of 1 as showing a Polish club. Remove 1 to 1. This can be strong, but is consistent with a hand like this.
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#5 User is offline   MrAce 

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Posted 2013-July-18, 02:30

I'd DBL and pass 1
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#6 User is offline   Fluffy 

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Posted 2013-July-18, 02:38

View PostPhilKing, on 2013-July-18, 01:11, said:

Play the double of 1 as showing a Polish club. Remove 1 to 1. This can be strong, but is consistent with a hand like this.


Not sure what you mean with the remove part, if double is polish club don't you have to bid 1 with 4441/4351 11-17?
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#7 User is offline   PhilKing 

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Posted 2013-July-18, 02:47

View PostFluffy, on 2013-July-18, 02:38, said:

Not sure what you mean with the remove part, if double is polish club don't you have to bid 1 with 4441/4351 11-17?


OK not quite the full Polish. I did play against a Polish pair recently who went the whole hog, so a 1M response showed 8+ and all weak hands (and some strong) bid 1.

My preference is to respond naturally (at the 1 level at any rate - 2 level+ = Stayman and transfers), but doubler continues "Polish" after 1.
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#8 User is offline   gwnn 

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Posted 2013-July-18, 03:14

I'd double and pass diamonds, I'm not as sophisticated as PhilKing :) If I understand you correctly, Phil, 1C-x-p-2D; p-2H is still strong right (well 2D denies a 4-card major so kind of a silly question)? Anything else to know about this?
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#9 User is offline   PhilKing 

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Posted 2013-July-18, 03:33

View Postgwnn, on 2013-July-18, 03:14, said:

I'd double and pass diamonds, I'm not as sophisticated as PhilKing :) If I understand you correctly, Phil, 1C-x-p-2D; p-2H is still strong right (well 2D denies a 4-card major so kind of a silly question)? Anything else to know about this?


2 is a transfer to hearts. 10+ points 5+ hearts. It has to be kepts up to strength because we double a loose club with 4243 13 counts, for instance.
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#10 User is offline   Fluffy 

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Posted 2013-July-18, 11:05

I had heard of a 'lebensohl' 1 before, I guess polish club continuations are ok, but I think the strong hand with clubs has to be changed to something else.

I don't like transfers, I want opener to be on lead.
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#11 User is offline   Zelandakh 

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Posted 2013-July-19, 02:57

View PostFluffy, on 2013-July-18, 11:05, said:

I had heard of a 'lebensohl' 1 before, I guess polish club continuations are ok, but I think the strong hand with clubs has to be changed to something else.

Nowadays Lebensohl gets everywhere. As I was learning the game (way before I ever heard of Lebensohl) the method was called Herbert negative. It was part of my inspiration for using a "Lebensohl-like" 1NT response to a take-out double of 1 as a junior, trying to split ranges and shapes more effectively. Noone else liked it so I stopped developing the idea.
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#12 User is online   helene_t 

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Posted 2013-July-19, 03:40

1nt as negative is nice if you don't have a natural 1nt overcall available . then the 15-17 bal can double and pass the negative . of course this means that you use the negative only with balancedish hands .
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#13 User is online   helene_t 

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Posted 2013-July-19, 03:42

Phil's system is known as inverse phantom club :)
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#14 User is offline   gnasher 

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Posted 2013-July-19, 04:06

View PostPhilKing, on 2013-July-18, 01:11, said:

Play the double of 1 as showing a Polish club. Remove 1 to 1. This can be strong, but is consistent with a hand like this.

What would be your upper limit for a 1 bid?
... that would still not be conclusive proof, before someone wants to explain that to me as well as if I was a 5 year-old. - gwnn
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#15 User is offline   PhilKing 

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Posted 2013-July-19, 05:02

View Postgnasher, on 2013-July-19, 04:06, said:

What would be your upper limit for a 1 bid?


21, I guess. It's just like opening 1 playing 4-card majors, except more is known about responder's hand.
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#16 User is offline   gnasher 

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Posted 2013-July-19, 05:45

View PostPhilKing, on 2013-July-19, 05:02, said:

21, I guess. It's just like opening 1 playing 4-card majors, except more is known about responder's hand.

It's not that much like opening 1. When you bid 1-2 or 1-1NT, the player in fourth seat doesn't know that his partner has an opening hand, and he doesn't have a penalty double available.
... that would still not be conclusive proof, before someone wants to explain that to me as well as if I was a 5 year-old. - gwnn
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#17 User is offline   PhilKing 

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Posted 2013-July-19, 06:59

View Postgnasher, on 2013-July-19, 05:45, said:

It's not that much like opening 1. When you bid 1-2 or 1-1NT, the player in fourth seat doesn't know that his partner has an opening hand, and he doesn't have a penalty double available.


I don't see how they can exploit this weakness in my system over 1 without just creating frequent problems for themselves.

And just because the max is 21, responder is not moving with four points and three hearts without a useful feature on top.
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#18 User is offline   gnasher 

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Posted 2013-July-19, 07:23

View PostPhilKing, on 2013-July-19, 06:59, said:

I don't see how they can exploit this weakness in my system over 1 without just creating frequent problems for themselves.

Responder passes with a balanced 11-count, then (noting his K10xx), passes again over 1. Then he doubles the final contract. I know there's a risk that 1 will be passed out, but the upside probably justifies it.

How prominently is this displayed on your convention card? This is the sort of thing that works better in practice than in theory, because unprepared opponents would probably reveal that they have values.
... that would still not be conclusive proof, before someone wants to explain that to me as well as if I was a 5 year-old. - gwnn
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#19 User is offline   PhilKing 

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Posted 2013-July-19, 07:27

View Postgnasher, on 2013-July-19, 07:23, said:


How prominently is this displayed on your convention card? This is the sort of thing that works better in practice than in theory, because unprepared opponents would probably reveal that they have values.


The sequence 1-x is described. Specific seat 6 scenarios are not described - there isn't room for second round actions, surely. 1 is alerted. Equally, we could float a diamond against players that play pass then double as 10+ balanced and have it clearly marked on their card (which they should, since the pass is a common first round action).

Strangely, we played the countermeasure you describe for a while (pass then double 10+ balanced), but have abandoned it. I doubt whether trapping again over 1 is percentage with 11 points, though, since the deck has to be split 5, 12, 12 to have much chance of a bigger fish.
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#20 User is offline   Winstonm 

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Posted 2013-July-19, 07:43

I pass.

I don't see a compelling reason to mis-describe my hand.
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