Assign the blame (2)
#1
Posted 2013-April-09, 12:47
West's hand: ♠AQJxx, ♥Kx, ♦A10, ♣AKxx
East's hand: ♠108xx, ♥Axx, ♦Jxx, ♣xxx
The bidding went without opp's interference:
1♠ - 1NT - 3♣ - 4♠ - 4NT - 5♣* - 6♠.
Who is more responsible for the overbid?
*14-30
#2
Posted 2013-April-09, 13:09
We'd bid 1♠-2♠-3♣-3♠-4♠ and be prepared to miss the slam opposite 109xx, AQx, xxxx, xx
#3
Posted 2013-April-09, 13:58
Either way, a familiar partnership should know their methods here.
-gwnn
#4
Posted 2013-April-09, 14:47
If 4♠ showed a limit raise (or something more than a mere spade preference which would be shown by bidding 3♠), then South is entirely to blame.
#5
Posted 2013-April-09, 15:12
[ See my by-line re Justin's comment on this type of SJS auction ] .
4S should be a 3 card limit raise -- a hand that would have jumped to 3S over a minimum rebid such as 2C .
3S is the weakest action and could be as few as 2 cards ♠ .
But Responder here has 4 cards ♠ ... with 5 hcp and the ugly 4 3 3 3 .
Since I play Bergen raises it would have gone 1S - 3S .
1S - 2S = 8,9 hcp exact w/ 3 card support ... so that is out .
TWOferBRIDGE
"imo by far in bridge the least understood concept is how to bid over a jump-shift
( 1M-1NT!-3m-?? )." ....Justin Lall
" Did someone mention relays? " .... Zelandakh
K-Rex to Mikeh : " Sometimes you drive me nuts " .
#6
Posted 2013-April-09, 15:34
TWO4BRIDGE, on 2013-April-09, 15:12, said:
[ See my by-line re Justin's comment on this type of SJS auctions ]
4S should be a 3 card limit raise -- a hand that would have jumped to 3S over a minimum rebid such as 2C .
3S is the weakest action and could be as few as 2 cards ♠ .
But Responder here has 4 cards ♠ ... with 5 hcp and the ugly 4 3 3 3 .
Since I play Bergen raises it would have gone 1S - 3S .
1S - 2S = 8,9 hcp exact ... so that is out .
With 4-3-3-3 shape, I don't feel comfortable to raise to 3 level. But if responder bid 1NT, after opener's 2m rebid, it would be awful to bid 2♠. 3♠ doesn't sound right either.
As in the real case, after opener's rebid of 3♣, either 3♠ or 4♠ doesn't sound right.
#7
Posted 2013-April-10, 11:44
#8
Posted 2013-April-10, 11:52
If they had no agreement, I blame them both - not just for having no agreement, but for their choice of actions.
#9
Posted 2013-April-10, 12:14
Free, on 2013-April-10, 11:44, said:
3♣ game forcing? in what system?
#10
Posted 2013-April-10, 12:52
HeartA, on 2013-April-10, 12:14, said:
In most common north american systems, as far as I know.
-gwnn
#11
Posted 2013-April-10, 14:17
billw55, on 2013-April-10, 12:52, said:
Yes this is the natural bidding forum so we should assume not playing a forcing ♣ limited opening system where 3♣
would just show a max and good distribution.
As for the OP problem, it seems the pair was playing forcing NT and that the intent of 1NT was to slow down the action with 2♠ next to show junk. Sometimes mixing that with also showing a limit raise via 1NT forcing can lead to problems if the pair doesn't have their agreements down as seems to be the case here.
#12
Posted 2013-April-10, 14:32
billw55, on 2013-April-10, 12:52, said:
3♣ is forcing (one round), but not game forcing.
#13
Posted 2013-April-10, 14:36
#14
Posted 2013-April-10, 15:03
HeartA, on 2013-April-10, 14:32, said:
wikipedia example
"3 of a new suit (jump shift) is natural, normally agreed to be game-forcing, and shows about 19 points or more"
There may be more than one way to play it of course, but GF is what I would expect undiscussed.
-gwnn
#15
Posted 2013-April-10, 15:22
I am with if 4♠ is fast arrival, then all the blame is on opener. If it is not fast arrival, then the blame is split between them, as north surel showed every ounce of his hand with the jump shift. As far as authority on the jump shift, look no further than MikeH fine post on reverse bidding where he says something like while jump shifts are game force, reverses are not game forcing....
#16
Posted 2013-April-10, 15:46
if 1NT could include a 3 card limit raise as is normally the case in 2/1, the jump to 4S should show this. a hand too weak to raise spades originally (i.e. what responder valued his hand to be) should bid 3♠ and revert to 4♠. as there's a lot of shite written above, i'll make it clear, fast arrival doesn't work in this sequence.
for the benefit of the people above who think 4♠ should be fast arrival, think what happens if you bid 3♠ on a good hand - unless opener is helpful and continues with 3NT, you'll be pre-empted out of showing your extra values, e.g. 1S-1NT-3C-3S-4C-4S is also what you would do with a hand such as Qx xxxx Axxxx xx. As 3♠ includes weak hands unsure of strain, you would be overloading it by putting your 3 card limit raises in there as well.
#17
Posted 2013-April-10, 18:00
#18
Posted 2013-April-11, 04:07
HeartA, on 2013-April-10, 14:32, said:
You self-rate as expert, right? It is not GF playing limited openers, and may not be GF playing artificial follow-ups to the 1NT response, but you must surely be aware that this is a GF in natural methods(?)
#19
Posted 2013-April-11, 08:04
HeartA, on 2013-April-10, 14:32, said:
Taking the above as a given*, then a weak hand such as East, that was intending to show weak support by rebidding 2♠, must here bid 3♠ as a weak hand. 4♠ therefore implies extra strength so East is to blame.
* but how is a kibitzer certain of this?
#20
Posted 2013-April-11, 08:23
the hog, on 2013-April-10, 18:00, said:
If East would have bid 3♠ as a weak hand, but thought he had to bid 4♠ because of the undisclosed length, then the consequences endorse the hog's comment. So this perhaps implies a share of the blame, for agreeing bad methods.

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