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Assign the blame (2)

#21 User is offline   P_Marlowe 

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Posted 2013-April-15, 13:18

West?

Sry - West forced to game, East showed the fit and simply did bid game,
why should East has made an overbid?

With kind regards
Marlowe
With kind regards
Uwe Gebhardt (P_Marlowe)
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#22 User is offline   mikl_plkcc 

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Posted 2013-April-19, 09:52

Clearly West.

Given this bidding, they are supposedly playing the idiotic constructive raise treatment, which confuses matter by putting both 5-7 and 11-12 3-card supports into forcing 1NT. The responding hand contains 5 HCPs, 4333 and an unsupported jack, and I evaluate it as only 5, which I would pass using standard methods. In this case, responder has 4 s! This shows how silly they are, by agreeing on a method which can't show a 4-card raise directly!

After the 3 game forcing rebid, East wants to stop the bidding immediately by bidding 4, which shows 5-7 in this case (3 would be 11-12 limit raise). I evaluate West hand as 22 (21 HCPs plus 1 length point, the s are a plus but the honours in short suits are minuses). Given East has only 5 to 7 points, the total is only 27 to 29, which is not enough for a 50% slam. (I believe that 29 to 31 is enough) Therefore, West should stop immediately.

In my system, the auction would go:
2 (20+)
- 2! (2 controls, GF)
2
- 3
4
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#23 User is offline   cherdano 

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Posted 2013-April-19, 11:50

View PostHeartA, on 2013-April-10, 14:32, said:

3 is forcing (one round), but not game forcing.

If you are this misinformed about basic bidding questions, the least you could do is not to lecture others about them.
The easiest way to count losers is to line up the people who talk about loser count, and count them. -Kieran Dyke
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#24 User is offline   ArtK78 

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Posted 2013-April-19, 12:22

View PostHeartA, on 2013-April-10, 14:32, said:

3 is forcing (one round), but not game forcing.


I play conventional rebids at the 3 level after a forcing 1NT response to one of a major. But even in my methods, 1-1NT-3 is game forcing (showing either 5-4 or better in spades and an unspecified second suit or a one-suited spade hand).

The next time I see this auction in a purportedly standard system and it turns out that 3 is not game forcing will be the first time.
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#25 User is offline   PhilKing 

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Posted 2013-April-19, 13:27

View PostZelandakh, on 2013-April-11, 04:07, said:

You self-rate as expert, right? It is not GF playing limited openers, and may not be GF playing artificial follow-ups to the 1NT response, but you must surely be aware that this is a GF in natural methods(?)


I suspect the truth is far worse - op may be a bridge teacher. :ph34r:
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#26 User is offline   gnasher 

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Posted 2013-April-20, 01:37

In English Acol, 3 used not to be game-forcing. I think that changed sometime in the 1980s.
... that would still not be conclusive proof, before someone wants to explain that to me as well as if I was a 5 year-old. - gwnn
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#27 User is offline   Antrax 

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Posted 2013-April-20, 02:47

View Postmikl_plkcc, on 2013-April-19, 09:52, said:

they are supposedly playing the idiotic constructive raise treatment. This shows how silly they are
-snip-
In my system, the auction would go:
2 (20+)
- 2! (2 controls, GF)
Welcome back.
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#28 User is offline   FrancesHinden 

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Posted 2013-April-21, 03:12

View Postgnasher, on 2013-April-20, 01:37, said:

In English Acol, 3 used not to be game-forcing. I think that changed sometime in the 1980s.


In 1983, Reese & Bird were saying it is non-forcing, never mind not game forcing.

But (for the benefit of other readers) it is now universally played as game forcing.
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#29 User is offline   gnasher 

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Posted 2013-April-21, 08:14

View PostFrancesHinden, on 2013-April-21, 03:12, said:

In 1983, Reese & Bird were saying it is non-forcing, never mind not game forcing.

In 1974 Crowhurst said that "In traditional Acol, a bid of this sort was forcing to game. The modern practice, however, is to make it forcing for one round only." Maybe they all kept changing their minds.
... that would still not be conclusive proof, before someone wants to explain that to me as well as if I was a 5 year-old. - gwnn
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#30 User is offline   PhilKing 

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Posted 2013-April-21, 08:20

View Postgnasher, on 2013-April-21, 08:14, said:

In 1974 Crowhurst said that "In traditional Acol, a bid of this sort was forcing to game. The modern practice, however, is to make it forcing for one round only." Maybe they all kept changing their minds.


I think it was partly because people still played some variant Acol Twos, which limited the chances of having a legitimate monster for 3.
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#31 User is offline   Zelandakh 

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Posted 2013-April-22, 02:03

View Postgnasher, on 2013-April-20, 01:37, said:

In English Acol, 3 used not to be game-forcing. I think that changed sometime in the 1980s.

I played it as 16+ around 1990 under protest, since the alternative my partner of the time would accept was considerably worse. I thought that the blue book from the early 70s had this as a game force although it is so long since I saw it that I am not 100% sure.

View Postmikl_plkcc, on 2013-April-19, 09:52, said:

In my system, the auction would go:

Would West still sign off in 4 if East had something like
Kxxx
Qxx
Kxx
Qxx
?
(-: Zel :-)
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