partner opens 1NT and you have 4=4=4=1 What is probably of a Major Fit
#1
Posted 2011-September-07, 09:46
You have 4=4=4=1.
What is the probably that you'll have a fit in a major? I was told by a good player that this is more then 50%.
At MP's you have 7 HCP and 4=4=4=1 after partner opens 1NT. What will you do?
#2
Posted 2011-September-07, 10:13
This approach will almost always be a clear winner when partner has a 4 (or 5!) card major, and will often break even or be a winner when he has 4 (or 5!)diamonds, and probably be a loser otherwise.
Since mps is a game about frequency of win rather than size of win, and the odds are in favour of his having at least 4 cards in one of our suits, it seems clear to bid.
Btw, I wouldn't invite game if he shows a major...I have already 'won' the board (compared to those who passed) and don't want to risk giving the board back.
Imps is a somewhat different issue, since with 7 hcp we stand a reasonable chance of making 1N even if it is an inferior contract compared to one of our suits......and we run a serious risk that a 4-3 or perhaps 4-2 ♦ partial will be failing.....partner holds 3=3=2=5 with chunky clubs and xx in diamonds and we have found the only minus score available to us. I would pass 1N at imps...tho would bid 2♣ with a weaker hand.
#4
Posted 2011-September-07, 13:53
kgr: I have heard it's something like 55 %, but it depends on how often you open 1N with a 5 card major, with 5422 shapes, and with 6322 shapes with a 6 card minor. I think it is over 50 % with any normal style. But playing diamonds will often be a winner over playing NT anyways, so you should factor that in. It's not like just because you have 7 HCP playing 1N will beat playing a 4-4 or 5-4 diamond fit when you have a ruffing value/stiff, especially since they will often lead that suit vs NT and set up a lot of winners.
You could make a case for correcting 2D to 2H if your majors were extremely strong and you had exactly 7, something like QJT9 KJT9 xxxx x I would bid 2H because I would expect playing a 4-3 major fit to be quite good given the solidity of those suits, but thats a pretty contrived example and in real life I have never done this.
#5
Posted 2011-September-07, 14:11
JLOGIC, on 2011-September-07, 13:53, said:
If you do this, you want to play the garbage stayman method where 1N-2♣-2♦-2♥ partner ALWAYS bids 2♠ when holding 3 spades and 2 hearts.
#6
Posted 2011-September-07, 14:28
We all play correcting with 3-2 down here in New Zealand. Garbage stayman is so popular here primarily because we all used to play weak NT.
I read years ago the odds were as high as 60% that partner had a 4 card major but a good player whose maths I would trust didn't believe me when I told him that and he did his own analysis recently and he got 58%
#7
Posted 2011-September-07, 14:45
Cyberyeti, on 2011-September-07, 14:11, said:
obv
#9
Posted 2011-September-07, 17:06
Cyberyeti, on 2011-September-07, 14:11, said:
Slight correction/addition :
Partner ALWAYS bids 2♠ when holding 3-3 or 3 Sp and 2 hts.
Because Garbage Stayman is also played by Responder holding a weak 5s/4h.
With a weak 4s/5h, Responder just transfers to Hts and forgets about Sp.
TWOferBRIDGE
"imo by far in bridge the least understood concept is how to bid over a jump-shift
( 1M-1NT!-3m-?? )." ....Justin Lall
" Did someone mention relays? " .... Zelandakh
K-Rex to Mikeh : " Sometimes you drive me nuts " .
#10
Posted 2011-September-07, 18:09
Cyberyeti, on 2011-September-07, 16:02, said:
" Advanced and Expert-Class Bridge"
#11
Posted 2011-September-07, 20:23
kgr, on 2011-September-07, 09:46, said:
Bbradley62, on 2011-September-07, 12:22, said:
JLOGIC, on 2011-September-07, 13:53, said:
Crunch3nt, on 2011-September-07, 14:28, said:
This is probably better suited to a simulation, but I tried it analytically but ignoring the confounding factor of hcp.
If you open any balanced hand including 5M332 and neither 5m422 nor 6m322, I get 56.9%.
If you open with any balanced hand including 5M332 plus any 5m422 and any 6m322, I get 53.2%
If you open any balanced hand except never 5M-332 (and also neither 5m422 nor 6m322), I get 51.3%.
If you open any balanced hand except never 5M-332 but do open all 5m422 and all 6m322, I get 48.4%
(Before posting, I double checked and found I'd left off 3-3-4-3. I think I've used every distribution now, though.)
#12
Posted 2011-September-07, 23:02
The case for Staymaning is even stronger at IMPs than at MP, too - getting to even a shaky 4-3 diamond fit may cost you 10 or 30 points, but save you from some big sets.
At any rate, not a remotely close decision with any of 4441, 3451, 4351, or 3361 shape. When you have a doubleton club, its only clear with a weak hand; with 7 or 8 points you gain some by Staymaning but do better by retreating to 2NT if you get stuck in a 7-card fit than playing the 4-3.
#13
Posted 2011-September-08, 02:07
- 4333 x 4 => 2 without M fit (50% fit)
- 4432 x 12 => 2 without M fit (83% fit)
- 5332 x 12 => 6 without M fit (50% fit)
Combined it gives us 64.29%* chance of a M fit (when 5M332 in range is always opened 1NT).
Some extras:
- adding 5m422's will increase the percentage slightly (4 out of 6 holdings with M fit)
- adding 6m322's will decrease the percentage significantly (0 out of 12 holdings with M fit). I'm sure not all of these are opened 1NT, so the difference will be smaller.
- adding 4441's will increase the percentage significantly (4 out of 4 holdings with M fit)
(*) Given the fact that partner's average number of ♣s will be higher than the other suits, the percentage will drop a little, but I'm quite confident it won't drop below 50%.
kgr, on 2011-September-07, 09:46, said:
Definitely Stayman, if partner has a M fit you might invite depending on honor location, if partner doesn't have a M fit we still have a decent chance of having a ♦ fit.
#14
Posted 2011-September-08, 02:37
TWO4BRIDGE, on 2011-September-07, 17:06, said:
Partner ALWAYS bids 2♠ when holding 3-3 or 3 Sp and 2 hts.
Because Garbage Stayman is also played by Responder holding a weak 5s/4h.
With a weak 4s/5h, Responder just transfers to Hts and forgets about Sp.
Err, no, with 5♠/4♥ he bids 2♣-2♦-2♠.
These are 2 different approaches.
Mine is better because in the 45 opposite 42 case I find the fit.
Quote
Yeah, but some advanced don't play garbage statman at all, so have never thought about it.
#15
Posted 2011-September-08, 02:54
Cyberyeti, on 2011-September-08, 02:37, said:
These are 2 different approaches.
Mine is better because in the 45 opposite 42 case I find the fit.
2♣-2♦-2♠ is used for invitational hands with 5♠ these days, not for garbage stayman. Your approach may be better when you hold the weak hand with 5♥-4♠, but invites with 5♠ are much more common plus it gives you extra space for other hand types (1NT-2♥-2♠-2NT is now free). So I wouldn't claim your approach is better in general because 1 little case is handled better.
#16
Posted 2011-September-08, 03:37
#17
Posted 2011-September-08, 03:58
Free, on 2011-September-08, 02:54, said:
Not in the UK it isn't very often, first time I've ever heard of that. So if you play that, how does opener know whether to play 2♠ or 2N if he wants to decline the invite ? (or is it specifically 5332 ?)
#18
Posted 2011-September-08, 05:53
Cyberyeti, on 2011-September-08, 03:58, said:
With a 3 card suit he can obviously pass, with Ax/Kx/Qx it depends on the hand, with xx he'll bid 2NT. After that, responder can still bid a second suit if he has 5-5 for example - which is something you can't do if you transfer and bid 2NT to invite.
#19
Posted 2011-September-08, 06:23
Free, on 2011-September-08, 05:53, said:
We transfer and any minimum bid now is not GF, we can play in 3♠, so an invitational 5♠/4 or 5♣ can transfer and bid clubs.
It seems that all you lose by playing this as garbage stayman is playing in 2♠ rather than 3 with a 5-3 or good 5-2 fit when opener is minimum and has no heart fit.
Playing a weak no trump myself, I find the garbage stayman more useful.
#20
Posted 2011-September-08, 06:47
mikeh, on 2011-September-07, 10:13, said:
Imps is a somewhat different issue, since with 7 hcp we stand a reasonable chance of making 1N even if it is an inferior contract compared to one of our suits......and we run a serious risk that a 4-3 or perhaps 4-2 ♦ partial will be failing.....partner holds 3=3=2=5 with chunky clubs and xx in diamonds and we have found the only minus score available to us. I would pass 1N at imps...tho would bid 2♣ with a weaker hand.
This seems to me strange advice.
First holding 4441 and a reasonable 7 HCP, if partner has a 4 card major, chances for game are not negligible.
But even if we do not invite over a major suit response, bidding 2♣ will show a net profit of more than 1 IMP per board on average, whether vulnerable or not.
The case at IMPs for bidding 2♣ is at least as strong as at pairs.
Of course you may go down if you bid 2♣ finding no fit, but how likely is that even in a 4-3 fit and you having a singleton albeit with the length in the trump suit?
I think your chances making your contract are not that terrible even in the worst case that you will have to play a 4-2 fit in 2♦, though one would of course prefer to stay in 1NT in this particular case.
But all these adverse scenarios have to be balanced against incurring a minus score at 1NT.
It is not true that 1NT is foolproof.
For a given combined point-count the number of tricks vary more at notrumps than at suit contracts.
Of course you are a favorite to make 1NT when you have the balance of points, but you will go down a fair number of times in spite of your preponderance of strength.
A quick simulation showed that 1NT was down 20% of the time (1000 deals), roughly as frequent as making 3NT with this strength. Average number of tricks was 7.5
Even if you would make 1NT slightly more often than 80% single dummy, I doubt that you would incur a negative score that often bidding 2♣.
A reasonable analysis when to run from 1NT can be found at http://taigabridge.n.../dd/garbage.htm
Rainer Herrmann