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What does this double mean? Double after 1NT freebid

Poll: What does this double mean? (21 member(s) have cast votes)

How many spades does opener need to pass this double?

  1. 5 (always takes out) (1 votes [4.76%] - View)

    Percentage of vote: 4.76%

  2. 4 (0 votes [0.00%])

    Percentage of vote: 0.00%

  3. 3 (1 votes [4.76%] - View)

    Percentage of vote: 4.76%

  4. 2 (3 votes [14.29%] - View)

    Percentage of vote: 14.29%

  5. 1 (6 votes [28.57%] - View)

    Percentage of vote: 28.57%

  6. 0 (always leaves it in) (10 votes [47.62%] - View)

    Percentage of vote: 47.62%

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#1 User is offline   helene_t 

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Posted 2011-February-08, 05:52

Playing 5-card majors, strong 1NT.

1-(1)-1NT-(pass)
pass-(2)-dbl

How penalty-oriented is this double?
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#2 User is offline   gwnn 

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Posted 2011-February-08, 05:56

I would assume it's perfectly penalty-oriented. what are we looking for? opener passed 1nt and all..
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#3 User is offline   paulg 

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Posted 2011-February-08, 05:58

I don't think opener has a spade void for passing 1NT, so I expect it to be left in almost all of the time.
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#4 User is offline   peachy 

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Posted 2011-February-08, 07:19

leave it in. Responder has something to tell: he is maximum with defensive hand.
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#5 User is offline   wyman 

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Posted 2011-February-08, 09:47

The only 0 spade hand one could posit for opener (who failed to rebid clubs) is 0=4=4=5, but even with this hand opener should have decided what to rebid over the expected 1S or 1N response (presumably not pass) and should have bid that over 1N, so this hand too is impossible.

In any case, this is 100% penalty oriented, and we should be happy to sit for it, imo.
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#6 User is offline   mtvesuvius 

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Posted 2011-February-08, 11:59

Penalty. I'd pass with 1, pull with 0 I think
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#7 User is offline   ggwhiz 

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Posted 2011-February-08, 14:37

By agreement, my partnership plays this double as maximal, a black check box on the ACBL convention card.

It shows a defensive max. for the previous bid (balanced). Double of 1 would be takeout, not this double.

With almost any balanced minimum, I pass and will probably lead trump as soon and often as I can, at least twice.

With an unbalanced hand, I'm bidding 3 to make unless I have a stiff in a red suit and a couple of spades. Especially if the Opps are white, I'm not into a white knuckle defence for down 1, +100 when 3 is a near certainty for +110 or 130. Pass might work if they are red at Matchpoints but it's a shot not to be taken at IMP's

If I had a strong potential source of tricks in a 6-card suit, 3nt could be on but I would NEVER pass 2 with anything like that.

All starts with checking the "Maximal Doubles" box on the convention card. The other doubles check box there in black that I love is "cards". Duh! Denies a yarborough?
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#8 User is offline   gwnn 

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Posted 2011-February-08, 15:04

3 is a near certainty? what are you playing partner for? you passed 1NT remember?
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#9 User is offline   ggwhiz 

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Posted 2011-February-08, 16:23

A freely bid 1nt for us promises 8 hcp's minimum. You are allowed to have 7 and too much caffein but it's your problem.

Probably not mainstream anymore but when we learned bridge, 1 - p - 1nt promised 8-10 and you bid 1 reluctantly with less. Same flavour, our nt bids are constructive hands. We pass with less and opener re-opens aggressively.
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#10 User is offline   gwnn 

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Posted 2011-February-08, 16:46

but does it make 3 a near certainty?

x
Axx
Kxxx
AQxxx

do you bid 3c with this?
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#11 User is offline   ggwhiz 

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Posted 2011-February-08, 16:43

I opened 1 with that and "near" certainty doesn't mean always. If I go down in 3 clubs, they were often making 2 spades doubled on the same bad distribution (for us).
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#12 User is offline   the hog 

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Posted 2011-February-08, 18:51

View Postgwnn, on 2011-February-08, 16:46, said:

but does it make 3 a near certainty?

x
Axx
Kxxx
AQxxx

do you bid 3c with this?


This is a 1D opening. Do you really want to rebid those tatty clubs?
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#13 User is offline   655321 

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Posted 2011-February-08, 19:01

View Postthe hog, on 2011-February-08, 18:51, said:

View Postgwnn, on 2011-February-08, 16:46, said:

but does it make 3 a near certainty?

x
Axx
Kxxx
AQxxx

do you bid 3c with this?



This is a 1D opening. Do you really want to rebid those tatty clubs?


This thread should show you that these days you are very much in the minority opening 1 with a longer club suit.
That's impossible. No one can give more than one hundred percent. By definition that is the most anyone can give.
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#14 User is offline   Lurpoa 

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Posted 2011-February-09, 08:06

I voted zero.
Which doesn't mean I will always leave it in. By the way: the less spades I have, the more partner "could" have, the more reason to leave the double in.

The fact he did bid 1NT, limits his hand. I will count him for 3 sure tricks.

I will need 2.5 quick tricks to leave it in. This would be the case on a normal opening.
However if my opening was weak, but distributional, I will bid.

could this be called a DSIP double ? Cooperative ?
The question I ask mysel here: if this is for IMPS: is that double really usefull ? Maybe if they are vul, yes.


(DSIP=Do Something Intelligent Partner).

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#15 User is offline   gwnn 

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Posted 2011-February-09, 08:18

View Postggwhiz, on 2011-February-08, 16:43, said:

I opened 1 with that and "near" certainty doesn't mean always. If I go down in 3 clubs, they were often making 2 spades doubled on the same bad distribution (for us).

how many clubs does your partner promise? I don't understand anything. I am not married to the Law but I don't think it's good bridge to bid with a 7 card fit over their (alleged) 8 card fit, and it sounds like wishful thinking to assume you make 'almost always'.

finally, it is not a "bad distribution" that we bid 3 over 2 with a 5-2 fit and went down, it's just a bad bid. when neither side has a fit, it is not unlikely that neither side makes anything.
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#16 User is offline   ggwhiz 

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Posted 2011-February-09, 09:52

1. I'm passing with 2 or more spades.

2. The only shape pard can have that matters with only 2 clubs is 4-3-4-2. If they are 3-3-5-2, I'm not defending 2 spades doubled against a nine card fit.

3. I have a minimum opener and pard knew that before doubling but didn't know much else. Certainly unable to support clubs with 3. I'm the one that knows if my min. is defensive or not.

If I have say AKJxx(x) in clubs with a couple of Queens and a STIFF spade, all it takes is a stiff club (or anything else) in one of their hands to have a shot at making it.

This whole Maximal double thing is a specific partnership agreement (DSIP)and I never put it forward as standard. There is a reason you have to specify it on the convention card.

Even if it's not to your taste to play it, you will have to play against it and should know what it is.

For example, p - p - 1 and the rest of the auction proceeds as in your example except your partnership has bid the spades. IF your opponents play maximal doubles and the 3rd seat 1 opener was at favorable vul you should at least consider bidding over a 3 runout bid.
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#17 User is offline   bluecalm 

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Posted 2011-February-09, 10:33

In my opinion it's clear pass unless somehow I passed 1NT with 0-4-3-6 (which I wouldn't).
Amount of overthinking in the simplest of situations in this thread amaze me :)
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#18 User is offline   FrancesHinden 

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Posted 2011-February-11, 14:30

It's actually a very strange auction. From responder's point of view, he didn't want to defend 1Sx, his side could have the minority of the HCP and a minority of the spades, yet he still wants to defend 2Sx?

The auction 1C 1S 1NT 2S P P x is more common.
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