[straube]

I have more room (after a nebulous 1D opening) to handle GF 5+S/4H hands if they respond 1H first. I'm wondering how I would deal with contested auctions.

1D P 1H (2C) P P ?

GF 5S/4H......easy, 2S
GF 4S/5H......dbl?
GF 4S/6H......dbl?
GF 5S/6H......should have responded 1S?

Are these comfortable solutions?

Now a different auction....

1D P !S (3C) P P ?

Should 3H here be competitive/invitational? Then 4H would be 5/5 GF. Or do I need 3H to be GF 5/5?

[foobar]

Think you can extend your questions to Precision 1♦ as well.

Woolsey's relay X after delayed interference might work well over 1♦ - 1M - (3♣) i.e.:

1♦ - 1M - (3♣):

X: Puppet to 3♦, probably various sign offs, maybe hands without club stopper
...3♦: Forcing with ♦s?
...3♥: Forcing with ♥s
...3♠: Forcing with ♠s
...3N: TP; club stopper

Alternatively, you can even incorporate transfers into the scheme (X is still the relay?), but not sure whether it buys much.

[benlessard]

If your willing to add some artificiality. I recommend my 1H/1S inversion.

It handle both majors by responder better than standard methods and without the need for 1D-2M as reverse flannery or similar gadget.

If responder got 54??

1D-1H-1Nt (opener denied 3S/4H so we know there is no fit.)
1D-1H-1S (we know we have a fit in the major but we dont know where it is)

responder got 55??
1D-1H-1S (we know we have a fit in the major but we dont know where it is)
1D-1H-1Nt (when responder rebid 2H it will show 5♥ not 4♥) so if opener is 23?? we will play 2♥ not 2♠.

responder got 64??
1D-1H-1S (we know we have a fit in the major but we dont know where it is)
1D-1H-1NT responder can rebid ♠ and be sure not to miss a 4-4 ♥ fit.

responder got 45??
1D-1H-1S (responder will rebid 2H to show 5,we might play 2S in a 43 fit if its 45?? vs 31??
1D-1H-1NT (since opener deny 3S, we are very likely to have a ♥ fit unless 2254)

responder got 44??
this is where we are at a disadvantage in reaching some 2M in 4-3 but we are never missing a 4-4 M fit compared to 1D-1H-1NT where you can miss a 4-4 !S fit
1D-1H-1NT= no fit so we are ok
1D-1H-1S= here we might have a 44 ♥ fit but maybe we only have a 43 ♠ fit, the solution to avoid too many bad 2♠ is that if opener is 3343 and 12-14 he rebid 1NT (rather than 1S) even with 3♠.

On those hand the inversion do a lot better than standard method even if you don't use 1D-2M for both M by responder. The exception is when its 1D-1H-2C where responder could have 5H and we might have a 5-3♥ fit.

You also have a lot of others advantage from the method.