[barsikb]

1NT- 2D-2H-4H Mild Slam Try, right? Is there a situation when opener could ask keycards with 4NT after this?

[wank]

whenever he's got a fit, a good suit of his own which will provide tricks irrespective of responder's holding and controls in the 2 other suits.

something like kxx kxx ax kqjtx

[barsikb]

Thank you, wank! I play 1NT as 15-17
So 1NT- 2D-2H-4H. After that opener may ask keycards by 4NT?

[ArtK78]

barsikb, on 2013-July-01, 12:36, said:

Thank you, wank! I play 1NT as 15-17
So 1NT- 2D-2H-4H. After that opener may ask keycards by 4NT?

Yes. It can have no other meaning, and opener could have a hand that merits a 4NT call.

(4NT could have another meaning, but not for purposes of this discussion).

[barsikb]

Thank you!

What about 1NT-2D-2H-4NT
Opener has options of Pass, 6H, 6NT. Is there also option of 5H meaning that we have no slam but I'd rather play in Hearts than in NT even though I need to go to a higher level?

[ArtK78]

barsikb, on 2013-July-01, 12:44, said:

Thank you!

What about 1NT-2D-2H-4NT
Opener has options of Pass, 6H, 6NT. Is there also option of 5H meaning that we have no slam but I'd rather play in Hearts than in NT even though I need to go to a higher level?

Yes.

[barsikb]

Thank you, ArtK78

[gwnn]

It's not really a mild slam try in std methods, but actually the only slam try with a long suit and no shortness (otherwise you could bid 3S/4m).

[Zelandakh]

What are you calling Standard methods? Where I come from, 1NT - 3M as natural and slammy is normal and covers the more serious slam try.

[gwnn]

In most countries I've played in + US, 3M is usually played as something with minors (this is just my impression). I like 3M as a forcing slam try for what it's worth but I've never seen it in real life. Anyway, for the people who don't play 3M as a forcing slam try or something with transfers, transfer then 4M is not really a mild slam try.

[Wackojack]

barsikb, on 2013-July-01, 12:44, said:

Thank you!

What about 1NT-2D-2H-4NT
Opener has options of Pass, 6H, 6NT. Is there also option of 5H meaning that we have no slam but I'd rather play in Hearts than in NT even though I need to go to a higher level?

A word of caution. I would estimate that 90% of players on BBO bidding 4NT here (arguably incorrectly) would mean this to be is Blackwood. The vast majority of the remaining 10% that meant the bid to be quantitative would when hearing a replay of 5♥ would hedging their bets take it it be a reply to Key card/Blackwood.

I notice that the title of this thread is "Replying to texas transfer question" and yet there is nothing here on Texas transfers.
1NT-4♦ or 1NT-4♥ are texas transfers to 4♥/♠ respectively. Thus 1NT-2♦-2♥-4♥ gives you a sequence with some slam interest and 1NT-4♦-4♥ gives you a sequence with no slam interest. The exception with the latter is that if as responder you are so strong that all you want to know is how many key cards partner opened with, then you can follow the Texas transfer with 4NT key card. Texas transfers are not univerally popular.

[Zelandakh]

What is it then? If your one-suited ladder looks like this:-

1NT - 4red; 4M = to play
1NT - 3M = strong slam interest
1NT - 4red; 4M - any = slam drive,

it is entirely logical to play 1NT - 2red; 2M - 4M as a mild slam try, fitting in-between the first two sequences.

[gwnn]

Zelandakh, on 2013-July-02, 03:05, said:

What is it then? If your one-suited ladder looks like this:-

1NT - 4red; 4M = to play
1NT - 3M = strong slam interest
1NT - 4red; 4M - any = slam drive,

it is entirely logical to play 1NT - 2red; 2M - 4M as a mild slam try, fitting in-between the first two sequences.

It is indeed entirely logical, I've already said as much in my previous post. But it's not standard from what I have seen. This is the BWS for instance: http://www.bridgewor...bwsall.html#IVF (for what little it is worth, of course, not saynig that it is gospel). They do not call transfer then 4M as a mild slam try.

[Zelandakh]

gwnn, on 2013-July-05, 04:51, said:

It is indeed entirely logical, I've already said as much in my previous post. But it's not standard from what I have seen. This is the BWS for instance: http://www.bridgewor...bwsall.html#IVF (for what little it is worth, of course, not saynig that it is gospel). They do not call transfer then 4M as a mild slam try.

That is because they are playing 3M responses as splinters, so 1NT - 2red; 2M - 4M is the only one-suited slam try without splintering. I do not think this is standard amongst beginners.

[gwnn]

Zelandakh, on 2013-July-05, 05:09, said:

That is because they are playing 3M responses as splinters, so 1NT - 2red; 2M - 4M is the only one-suited slam try without splintering. I do not think this is standard amongst beginners.

Nor are Texas transfers.

[barsikb]

I am reading that Texas Transfers are on after interference upto 3C. Is it only about preeempts?
What about 1NT(N)-2C(E)-4D(S)? Is it Texas?

[barsikb]

What is the meaning of 1NT(N)-3D(E)-4D(S)?

[ArtK78]

Assuming that transfers are off in this situation, 4♦ says "pick a major." Responder either wants to play in 4 of a major or has a very strong hand and will bid again.

[barsikb]

Thank you, ArtK78! And what about 1NT(N)-2C(E)-4D(S)? Is it Texas?

[Zelandakh]

I would recommend keeping that as a Texas transfer even if the 2♣ overcall showed 4+ hearts (both majors or whatever).