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Weak hand

#1 User is offline   kfay 

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Posted 2012-November-13, 12:42



IMPs

My personal opinion was that the hand was not strong enough to respond an immediate 2. I was just going to take a simple preference. Thoughts?

Now what?
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#2 User is offline   billw55 

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Posted 2012-November-13, 14:34

View Postkfay, on 2012-November-13, 12:42, said:

My personal opinion was that the hand was not strong enough to respond an immediate 2.

I don't understand this. Isn't 2 about the weakest bid you can make? I would bid 2, and would want a little more to justify bidding twice (1 and hearts later).

So I would not be in your situation.
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#3 User is offline   TimG 

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Posted 2012-November-13, 14:38

Old fashioned is that 1S followed by a preference to 2H is stronger than a direct 2H. If you want to make the weakest raise possible, a forcing NT followed by preference would be in order. But, that was all before the days of "constructive" single raises.

Now I bid 4S and hope the double fit gets us home.
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#4 User is online   mike777 

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Posted 2012-November-13, 14:45

View Postkfay, on 2012-November-13, 12:42, said:



IMPs

My personal opinion was that the hand was not strong enough to respond an immediate 2. I was just going to take a simple preference. Thoughts?

Now what?



agree 4s now.


agree not good enough for a direct 2h which I play around 8-11 with 3 card support.

1h can be lite.

This gets back to another thread where the preference back to 2h can be a wide 2 card support range or 5-7 with 3 card support.
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#5 User is offline   kfay 

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Posted 2012-November-13, 14:48

How did old-fashioned players bid with KJxx xx Jx J10xxx when partner opened 1 and rebid 2? What about Axxx x x QJxxxxx? Or whatever?

If partner rebids 1NT I can see how this could be true, but it's certainly not always true.
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#6 User is offline   Phil 

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Posted 2012-November-13, 14:58

I would start with 1N.

I have two big cards, so I'd kick it in to 4.
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#7 User is offline   fromageGB 

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Posted 2012-November-13, 15:21

I would assume opener has (an)other bid(s) available for strong hands, so I guess 3 is simply invitational if I am good for my 1. I am not. Pass.
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#8 User is offline   mikeh 

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Posted 2012-November-13, 15:25

Two working cards make this slightly better than a 6 count, so I bump this at imps, red. I'd pass in all other situations.

Hoping for something like AKxx KQxxx xx Ax and decent splits, but can survive on worse.
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#9 User is offline   lalldonn 

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Posted 2012-November-13, 16:19

I think passing ever is crazy. I think this hand is more than half a trick better than Qxxx xxx xx Axxx, with which I still might bid game.
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#10 User is offline   Fluffy 

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Posted 2012-November-13, 17:04

If I am playing 2/1 I'd start with 1NT, I would bid game now, 2 bullets is a lot, I prefer game in spades
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#11 User is offline   gnasher 

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Posted 2012-November-13, 17:26

View Postkfay, on 2012-November-13, 12:42, said:

My personal opinion was that the hand was not strong enough to respond an immediate 2.

If you play 1-2 as constructive, and you judge that this hand is too weak, then make your non-constructive raise.

As it's gone, I think 4 is clear. AKxx KQJxx xxx x isn't a lot.
... that would still not be conclusive proof, before someone wants to explain that to me as well as if I was a 5 year-old. - gwnn
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#12 User is offline   JLOGIC 

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Posted 2012-November-14, 16:50

I assumed the question was which game to bid not whether to bid or not. If partner is 4-6 in the majors I probably want to play hearts, and if partner is 4-5 he will go back to 4S unless his spades are bad and his hearts are great which is probably ok. Maybe also if he has Kx Kx in the minors and wants to play from his side or something which is also ok.

That assumes that 4H is a suggestion of strain rather than a cuebid. I would not be sure that that was true in a normal partnership (what do you bid with KQJxx Ax xxx xxx) so I would bid 4S to avoid an accident.
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