bluejak, on 2012-October-30, 07:49, said:
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What else? Fielding a psyche, ie a breach of Laws 40A3 and 40C1. The method of dealing with fielded psyches differs from jurisdiction to jurisdiction, which is one of the reason we ask OPs to state jurisdiction when asking questions.
Does the pass of 3NT suggest South is allowing for the 2NT not to be natural, ie is he allowing for his partner not to have his bid? Of course it does: he had game values opposite a natural 2NT bid and took no positive action. Definitely fielded.
There are lots of reasons that South might play for North to have psyched. If he did it because North psyches a lot, they have a CPU and have broken Laws 40A3 and 40C1.
If, on the other hand, South reasoned "We're losing the match; therefore partner is more likely than usual to have psyched; the odds favour playing for him to have psyched, so that's what I've going to do", there is no CPU - South is simply making a judgement of probabilities based upon the state of the match. If there is no CPU, no Law has been broken. You can call South's actions fielding if you like, but that doesn't make them, or the 2NT opening, illegal.
This post has been edited by gnasher: 2012-October-30, 09:48