Simple hand - need advice preffered bidding sequence
#1
Posted 2012-June-13, 03:37
.
Open: ♠: * * * * ♥: * * * ♦: * * * ♣: * * * (4333 & 13pts)
Resp: ♠: * * ♥: * * * * ♦: * * * * * ♣:* * (2452 & 8pts)
Here are some possible auctions (assuming no interference from opponents).
1) -------------------------
1♣-1♥
1NT - 2♦
Pass
In this auction opener bypasses his 4♠ suit due to his 4333 shape. The responder shows 4♥ and 5♦ with 6-10pts.
2) ------------------------- first response 1♦
1♣-1♦
1♠ - 1NT
Pass
1♣-1♦
1NT - Pass (opener doesn't show his ♠ suit)
Rebidding 2♦ would show 6-suit
3) ------------------------- If opener shows his ♠ suit after 1♥ response
1♣-1♥
1♠ - 1NT
Pass
the responder is now required to bid 1NT since 2♦ is 13+pts GF.
-------------------------
Do you prefer 2♦ or 1NT contract for this hand. All auctions lead to 1NT except 1).
#2
Posted 2012-June-13, 04:30
After a 1♥ response it is not so good to let a 1♠ rebid promiss an unbalced hand since we could easily miss a spade fit. Even so, with 4333 I would prefer to rebid 1NT, even after a 1♥ response.
In general I prefer
1♣-1♥
1NT-pass
but might bid 2♦ instead of the final pass with some hands, depending on the quality of the diamond suit.
#3
Posted 2012-June-13, 04:57
1NT-2♦
pass
is a good auction and ♦ fit is likely unless opener has 3325 shape. For such hand both contracts 2♦ and 1NT look good. (I would prefer to be in 2♦ contract.)
#4
Posted 2012-June-13, 08:55
This might be helpful for posting and for reading the posts of others:
4=3=3=3 denotes the exact order of the suits
4-3-3-3 is generic. Some just use 4x3.
Distributions described like 2-4-5-2 are assumed to be in rank order, but
5=4=2=2 probably should be specified for clarity if we are 5=4 in the majors, because 5-4-2-2 might be confused with a generic hand pattern without regard to with suit is which.
#5
Posted 2012-June-13, 09:45
aguahombre, on 2012-June-13, 08:55, said:
4=3=3=3 denotes the exact order of the suits
4-3-3-3 is generic. Some just use 4x3.
I thought a standard was to use curly brackets around the suits where the length applies to any of those suits, and no curly brackets indicating the exact length, with suits in sequence spades, hearts, diamonds, clubs. No?
So {4333} is any flat hand with one 4 card suit, 2452 is 2 spades, 4 hearts, etc, and {54}22 is 5-4 in the majors but 5 in either major.
#6
Posted 2012-June-13, 09:48
#7
Posted 2012-June-13, 23:35
On the bidding I like either 1♣-1red-1nt auctions (I do prefer 1♥ to 1♦ with a hand that will pass 1nt).
2=4=5=2 is a balanced hand and so is 4=3=3=3. Balanced hands belong in nt. 12-14 opposite 8 is not game. 1nt is where you should be.
My favorite natural auction on this hand is actually:
1nt-all pass because a 12-14 nt is actually more natural, IMO, than a 15-17 nt. But that might be a bit of bait for this thread, and I wouldn't want us to derail from the OP with something off topic like notation or the supremacy of the weak nt.
#8
Posted 2012-June-14, 04:40
I don't go with those who would have opener rebid 1NT rather than 1♠, as that might miss a spade fit, as I would also be bidding 1♦ on a 4252 shape. And I am not worried by opener possibly having a shapely hand such as the cited 4207 or 5206 as those hands will surely rebid 2♣ and 2♠ respectively (though my preference would be to open 1♠ on the latter). So I cannot agree with 1♠ showing an unbalanced rebid.
If you don't bid 1♦ then you will end in the wrong contract when opener is {31}45 with a singleton in your bid major.
#9
Posted 2012-June-14, 12:30
In general, I would rather end in 1NT anyway - it scores better. If you don't want to have those minor fits lost, it's probably better to play up-the-line. But even there, you'd likely get a 1♣-1♦; 1♠-1NT auction anyway. You'll at least have lots of company if 1NT turns out to be worse than 2♦'s.
#10
Posted 2012-June-20, 01:50
perko90, on 2012-June-14, 12:30, said:
In general, I would rather end in 1NT anyway - it scores better. If you don't want to have those minor fits lost, it's probably better to play up-the-line. But even there, you'd likely get a 1♣-1♦; 1♠-1NT auction anyway. You'll at least have lots of company if 1NT turns out to be worse than 2♦'s.
according to sayc convention card the following auction shows 6-10pts with 4♥ and 5♦
1♣-1♥
1NT-2♦
PASS
#11
Posted 2012-June-20, 04:44
- hrothgar
#12
Posted 2012-June-20, 16:48
1s=1nt looks fine.
you just need to prefer to play in a major or nt and lose the d suit fit sometimes.
#13
Posted 2012-June-21, 06:20
mike777, on 2012-June-20, 16:48, said:
1s=1nt looks fine.
you just need to prefer to play in a major or nt and lose the d suit fit sometimes.
But how is this better than 1♣ 1♦ 1♠ 1NT?
I can see that the latter is better if there is a diamond fit, and there is a slight advantage that the oppo on lead does not know you have 4 hearts, so the lead might be advantageous. I can't see how bidding hearts rather than diamonds helps on this hand.
It may be a consequence of your methods, which possibly may be better elsewhere, but on this hand I think it is worse.
#14
Posted 2012-June-21, 08:45
fromageGB, on 2012-June-21, 06:20, said:
I can see that the latter is better if there is a diamond fit, and there is a slight advantage that the oppo on lead does not know you have 4 hearts, so the lead might be advantageous. I can't see how bidding hearts rather than diamonds helps on this hand.
It may be a consequence of your methods, which possibly may be better elsewhere, but on this hand I think it is worse.
ya prefer to have your auction promise an unbalanced hand such as 5c and 4s and responder denies 4h unless gf and unbalanced such as 5d and 4h, the trade off is I may lose a diamond partial.
nOte in your example if responder bids 2s over 1s, responder has shown 5d+4s and at least a mild slam try.
If responder starts with 1h and rebids 1nt he may induce a d lead into your 8 card fit.
you decide whether the trade off is worth the cost.
#15
Posted 2012-June-22, 08:07
mike777, on 2012-June-21, 08:45, said:
nOte in your example if responder bids 2s over 1s, responder has shown 5d+4s and at least a mild slam try.
If responder starts with 1h and rebids 1nt he may induce a d lead into your 8 card fit.
you decide whether the trade off is worth the cost.
Thanks for the examples, I've never played, or come across opponents using, the walsh style. I can see the advantages on stronger hands. I play transfer walsh, and this has similar but different gains and trade-offs.