What now?
#1
Posted 2011-June-06, 08:54
♠K Q 7 5 3
♥9 7 4
♦J 9 2
♣10 4
Your partner opens 1♣, Your RHO bids 1♦, You bid 1♠ (= 5/6-card ♠, 5-8 HCP).
LHO passess, and partner rebids 2♦(= GF). RHO passess and You bid 2♠. LHO passes again and now partner bids 3♦(= denying any 5+-suit).
So the bidding:
1♣ - (1♦) - 1♠ - (pass)
2♦ - (pass) - 2♠ - (pass)
3♦ - (pass) - ?
What do You respond now?
Thx
Jan
#2
Posted 2011-June-06, 10:53
#3
Posted 2011-June-06, 11:19
Hilver, on 2011-June-06, 08:54, said:
Uhhuh, and what would 2NT have shown?
-- Bertrand Russell
#4
Posted 2011-June-06, 12:22
Assuming that he has denied three spades, you're kind of stuck. Provided that you have another initial call for ♠KQTxxxx, I guess 3♠ is least bad - partner's going to take you for 6, but you have no diamond stopper (and don't really want to be declarer in NT anyway) and the 5-2 is probably better in your suit than the 4-3 heart fit.
This is the reason I play "p/xx NGF, systems on" after 1♣-(1♦) - not that it's going to be any better, except that 1♣-(1♦)-1♥ (showing spades) sets the game force, so we are one call ahead of you.
#6
Posted 2011-June-06, 18:37
Hilver, on 2011-June-06, 13:55, said:
So 3♦ shows (a) exactly 20-21 balanced or (b) exactly 1444 shape? Then logically we should be playing 3♥ = transfer to 3NT and 3♠ = transfer to 4 hearts. I bid the transfer to 3NT.
-- Bertrand Russell
#7
Posted 2011-June-06, 21:29
Most likely he has a ♠ fit (he should have set trumps earlier), or possibly a big balanced hand(can 2NT be 25+)
With no control to show, I would just bid 3♠ or if the ♠ fit is "guaranteed" I can see bidding 4♠
#8
Posted 2011-June-07, 04:18
#9
Posted 2011-June-09, 05:38
This allows me to bid 3NT over partner's 3♠ to show my ♦Jxx or partner to bid a delayed 3NT instead with his ♦Qx.
#10
Posted 2011-June-11, 19:23
#11
Posted 2011-June-12, 04:54
#12
Posted 2011-June-14, 12:48
bluecalm, on 2011-June-12, 04:54, said:
Openers hand:
♠ A x x
♥ A K 10 9
♦ A 10 x
♣ A K Q
#13
Posted 2011-June-15, 21:53